In European countries the incidence of cancer is higher than in non-European developing countries. This difference in cancer rates cannot be due to a greater genetic susceptibility to cancer amongst Europeans because statistics show that Europeans who migrate to developing countries decrease their chances of getting cancer and that those from developing countries who migrate to Europe increase their chances of getting cancer. Since there are major differences in diet between Europe and developing countries it is reasonable to conclude that the higher cancer rates in Europe are due to certain cancer-causing foods.
Which one of the following if true would most weaken the above argument?